evs qsa

318

Appendices

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer for the following.

1. The "Montreal Protocol" is related to

(a) Land pollution (e) Water pollution

(b) Atmospheric pollution (d) None of these.

2 Niche refers to

(a) Habitat of a number of aquatic species (5) Habitat of a number of land species

(e) Habitat of a single species

(a) None of these.

3 Medha Patkar is related with (a) Chipko movement

(b) Silent Valley movement

(e) Narmada Bachao movement (d) None of these.

4. Lapse rate refers to the rate at which (a) Population increases in area with increase in temperature

(6) Temperature decreases with increase in elevation (e) Temperature decreases with decrease in elevation

(d) None of these.

$. The maximum quantity of fresh water occurs in

(a) Rivers

(b) Ground water

(e) Polar ice caps and glaciers (d) None of these.

6. Which of the following can be used for disinfection of water? (b) Hydrogen peroxide

(a) Chlorine

(e) Ozone

(d) None of these.

7. Eutrification means

(a) Thermal change in water

(b) Filling up of water body with aquatic plants due to extra-nourish

ment (c) Solid waste

(d) None of these

319

Appendices

& Greenhosue effect is due to

319

(a) Over-cultivation of land (b) Testing nuclear weapons

(a) Biological Oxygen Demand (e) Biggest Oxygen Demand (6) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (d) Bio Oxygen Dissolved.

(a) Ammonia

Air pollutant which reduces oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is (b) Hydrogen sulphide

(e) Carbon monoxide

(d) None of these.

11. Which one is a greenhouse gas? (a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrogen (d) Sulphur dioxide

12. Which of the following ozones is harmful to public health? (a) Stratospheric ozone

(b) Tropospheric ozone (d) None of these.

13. Which one is the intensity level of noise?

(a) Centimetre

14. Which one is a primary pollutant?

(6) Decibel

(d) Watt.

(a) Smoke (c) PAN

(b) Carbon monoxide (d) Carbon dioxide

15. Identify the prime constituent of smog:

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(a) Water (c) Carbon dioxide

16. Identify the cause of eutrophication.

(a) Increase of pathogens

(d) Hydrogen sulphide.

(b) Increase of BOD

(Increase of algae productivity (d) Increase of DO. 17. Hydrosphere consists of

(a) Air layers

18. The coldest region of the atmosphere is (a) Troposphere (d) Thermosphere.

(b) Rocks

(d) Various water bodies and oceans

(b) Stratosphere

(e) Mesosphere

19. Ozone acts as a pollutant when resides in

(b) Stratosphere

(a) Troposphere (c) Mesosphere

(d) lonosphere.

320

320

Environment and Ecology

20. Minamata disease is associated with

(a) Mercury

(b) Arsenic

(a) Thermal (c) Nuclear

(b) Hydroelectric (dy Solar

22. WAS stands for (a) Waste Activated System

(b) Waste Affected Slurry (d) Waste Activation Stock.

(e) Waste Activated Sludge

noise?

23. Which one is the intensity level of (a) Metre

(b) Candle

(0) Decibel

(d) Newton.

24. Biotic factor of eco-system is

(b) Soil

(a) Sunlight (c) Wind

(d) Producer and consumer. 25. Which of the following is not biodegradable?

(a) Polythene (c) Vegetable waste

(b) Cotton (d) Wood.

26. There are two samples of waste water. Sample-I has BOD 300 mg/l and Sample-11 has BOD 30 mg/l. (a) The degree of pollution is same in both the samples

(b) Sample-1 is more polluted than sample-II (c) Sample-II is more polluted than sample-I.

(d) No inference can be drawn on the degree of pollution.

27. The value of earth's albedo is

(a) 0.21 (c) 031

(b) 0.021

28. Contaminated water causes disease due to

(a) Increase of pathogens (b) Increase of BOD

29. The temperature range of troposphere is

(a)-2 to 92°C (c)-56 to-2°C

30. Sulphur cycle is

(a) Hydrologic cycle (c) Sedimentary cycle

(b) 15 to 56°C (d)-92 to 1200°C

(b) Gaseous cycle

(d) None of the above.

31. The important component of environement is

(a) Biosphere (c) Atmosphere

(b) Lithosphere (d) All of these

321

Appendices

321

32 Density of water is maximum at (a) 0C

(6) 4C

(d) None of the above

11. In an open system

(a) Only mass exchanges take place with surroundings (b) Only energy exchanges take place with surroundings (e) Both mass and energy exchange take place with the surroundings

(D) All of these

34. Biotic factor is related to (a) Living organisms

(b) Non-living organisms

(e) Both living and non-living organisms

(d) None of these

35. Energy flow in an eco-system is

(a) Unidirectional (c) May be unidirectional or cyclic depending on condition

(d) Cannot be said

(b) Cyclic

36. (a) Water evaporation from the soil

Transpiration is

(b) Water evaporation from oceans

(e) Water evaporation from stems and leaves of plants (d) Water evaporation from glaciers

37. Nitrogen cycle is (a) Gaseous cycle

(b) Hydrologic cycle

(d) All the above

38. The main component of air is (a) Nitrogen

(b) Oxygen (d) Water Vapour

(a) CO₂

40. The IR active gas is

(b) 0,

(d) NO

(a) O,

(b) CO₂

(d) He

41. The ambient lapse rate generally is

(a) 6.5°C per km (c) 10°C per km

(b)-6.5°C per km

(d) 13°C per km.

42. The main component of photochemical smog is

(a) Water vapour Oxides of nitrogen

(b) Sulphur dioxide (d) All the above

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Environment and Ecology

43. The main pathogen present in contaminated water is

(a) Bacteria (c) Protozoa

(b) Algae

(d) All the above

44. Blue baby syndrome is related to

NO,

(d) PO¹

(a) NO, 45. The most toxic chemical as carcinogen is

(a) Carbon tetrachloride (c) Tetrachloro ethylene

(b) Vinyl chloride

(d) Trichloro ethylene

46. In BOD test the BOD bottles are stoppered to

(a) Prevent mixing of carbon dioxide

(b) Prevent mixing of ozone (e) Prevent mixing of oxygen

(d) Prevent mixing of inert gases

47. COD test is more scientific than BOD test because (a) It is not related to micro-organism

(b) It is related to micro-organism

(d) It is related to oxidising chemicals

48. Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of (b) SO

NO,

(e) Cr

(d) HCO,

49. Ozonised water means

(a) Water containing ozone (b) Ozone used an disinfectant

(d) Saline water

50. The imaginary line between crust and mantle is (a) Mono discontinuity

(b) Conred discontinuity

51. The primary rock in the lithosphere is (b) Igneous rock

(a) Metamorphic rock

(d) All the above

52. Hazardous waste should have characteristics such as (a) Reactivity (b) Corrosivity

53. Denitrification means

(d) All the above

(a) Conversion of NO, to NH (6) Conversion of NH, to NO, (d) Conversion of NH to N₂

54. In soil profile the upper horizon is (a) Mineral Horizon

(b) Organic Horizon

(d) None of the above

323

Appendices

323

55. The main component of soil is

(a) Oxygen

(b) Silicon

(d) Iron 56. The best method of disposal of non-hazardous solid waste

(a) Open dumping (c) Incineration

(b) Sanitary land filling

(d) Composting

57. Unit of measurement of sound is (a) Phone

(b) Bel

(d) All the above

(b) Decibel

(d) L

59. The noise threshold limit value of sound level 110 dB (a) 15 minutes

(b) 8 hrs (d) 2 hrs

60. Effect of noise pollution is mainly on (a) Physical health (e) Both physical and mental health

(b) Mental health

(d) None of the above.

61. The various factors of environment are

(a) Physical factor (c) Biological factor

(b) Chemical factor (d) All the above

62. Examples of second trophic level organism is

(a) Plant (c) Tiger

(b) Small fish (d) None of these

63. The temperature of earth's core is about

(d) 5500°C

(b) 1000°C

(d) 500°C

64. The important mineral for generation of atomic energy is

(a) Uranium (c) Hafnium

(b) Thorium

(d) Lawrentium

65. The simple global temperature model predicts earth temperature to be

(a) 0°C

(b) 34°C

(d)-273°C

66. Sound wave is an example of (a) Transverse wave

(b) Longitudinal wave

(d) None of these

324

324

Environment and Ecology

67. In genotoxicity the target area is

(a) Liver (c) Blood

(b) Kidney (d) Gene

68. Example of conventional type of renewable resources may be

(a) Plants (c) Aquaculture

69. The unit of measuring hardness is

(b) Wild life (d) All the above.

(a) ppm (c) mole/litre (d) mole/kg

(b) gm/litre

70. Phosphorus is the main constituent of (b) ADP

(a) ATP

(d) None of these

71. By using photocell, solar energy can be converted to

(a) Thermal energy (e) Electrical energy 72. For good air quality the PSI value should be

(d) All of

(a) 50-70 (c) 10-30

(b) Mechanical energy

(b) 0-10 (d) 0-50

73. The temperature of the stratosphore varies in between

(a)-56°C to -2°C

(b) 15°C to-56°C

(d) -2°C to -92°C

(b) India-Pakistan war (d) None of the above

(c)-92°C to 1200°C

74. The disaster of 1986 is related to

(a) Chernobyl accident.

75. Methyl isocyanate can be called (a) Contaminant (c) Both contaminant and pollutant (d) None of these

(b) Pollutant

76. The main chemical responsible for pulmotoxicity is

(a) 0, (c) CO,

(b) O

(d) N₂

77. One kilogram of natural uranium generates energy equivalent to

(a) 5,000 kg of coal (c) 35,000 kg of coal

78. The primary air pollutant is

(a) SO, (c) PAN

(b) 10,000 kg of coal (d) 15,000 kg of coal

(b) 0,

(d) HCHO

79. The main attribute of population growth is (a) Birth rate

these

(b) Immigration rate

(d) None of these

325

Appendices

325

80. The temperature of troposphere varies in between

(a) 15°C to-56°C (c) -2°C to-92°C

(b)-56°C to -2°C

(d)-92°C to 1200°C.

81. Natural events causing environmental degradation could be (a) Flood

(b) nuclear explosions (d) (a) and (c) only.

82. The distance between two consecutive particles in the same phase is known as

(a) Amplitude (c) Frequency

(b) Wavelength

(d) Time period 83. N, and O2 are not greenhouse gases because

(a) They have dipole moment

(b) They do not have dipole moment (e) Dipole moment does not occur during vibration

(d) None of these

(a) Half the carrying capacity (b) Double the carrying capacity

84. The maximum sustainable yield is obtained when the population is (c) Two third of carrying capacity (d) Three fourth of the carrying capacity.

85. Habitat and niche is

(a) Same meaning

(6) Habitat is the place where an organism lives; niche is the activity

86. The imaginary line where mantle meets the core is a) Gutenberg discontinuity

(b) Moto discontinuity (d) None of these

87. In poor countries the TFR values most approximately is (c) 3.5

(b) 1.5

(a) 7.0 88. For high air pollution potential the atmopshere will have a ventilation coefficient of

(d) 0.5

(a) 6000 m²/s (c) 10,000 m²/s

89. Lithosphere consists of

(a) Crust

90. Autecology can also be termed as (a) Population ecology

(b) 1000 m²/s

(d) None of these

(b) Mantle

All the above

(b) Landscape ecology

(d) Pedology

326

326

Environment and Ecology

(b) HCI

(d) H,SO

91. Acid which may act as buffer is (a) HCO, (e) HNO,

92. The nature of pyramid in successive trophic level is (b) Upright

(a) Inverted (c) Can be both inverted and upright (d) None of these

93. Ground water has

(b) Maximum hardness

() Very less hardness: (c) Moderate hardness

(d) None of these

94. The ecological factors can be

(b) Light

(a) Wind (c) Humidity

All the above

95. A coagulant will be highly effective if it has (a)High charge

(b) Low charge (d) None of these

96. The thickness of crust varies from (a) 0-10 km

(b) 20-50 km

(e) 64-96 km

(d) 100-200 km

97. The topographic factor in an eco-system is

(a) Altitude of mountains (b) Slope of mountains All of these

98. The most effective disinfectant is

(b) Cl₂

(d) All the above

99. The atmosphere is neutrally stable under the condition (a) ELR>ALR

ELR=ALR

100. The law of tolerance was given by

Darwin (c) Odum

101. Road traffic noise is meausred by (a) Lo (18 hrs) index

(6) ELR <ALR

(d) None of the above

(b) Shelford (d) Liebig

(d) None of the above

(b)+3 (d) +4

103. Edaphic factors of eco-system are related to

(a) Soil

(b) Water

(d) All the above

327

Appendices

327

The main component of stratosphere is

(a) O (c) NO

(b) H

(e) 10,000 Hz

(b) 3000 Hz (d) 20,000 Hz

106. Water will be considered saline if the TDS value is (a) 1500 mg/1 (c) <500 mg/b

(b)>5000 mg/1

107. In symbiosis

(d) None of the above

(Two species are mutually benefitted (6) Only one is benefitted (c) No species are benefitted 108. The IR absorption band of vapour is

(d) Species depend on others

Less than 8 um and greater than 18 um (b) Less than 5 um and greater than 100 µm (c) Less than 18 um and greater than 50 um

(d) None of these organism 109. Example of first trophic level is

(a) Green plant (c) Frog

(b) Cattle

(d) Tiger

110. The human audio sense is most sharp in the frequency range of (b) 100-200 Hz

5000-5500 Hz (c) 6000-10,000 Hz

(d) 2-1000 Hz

111. The most toxic volatile organic compound is

Vinyl chloride

(b) Carbon tetrachloride

(d) None of these

112. The preferred temperature region of physiological activity is

(a) 0-4°C

(b)-4-45°C (d) 58-70°C

113. In USG the wave used is

(a) Sound wave

(b) Light wave

(b) size of Zn² > Cdt

(d) None of these

115. For good vegetation the pH of the soil must be

(b) Very less

(a) Very high

Slightly less than 7.

328

328

Environment and Ecology

116. With increase in temperature the dissolved oxygen in water Decreases

(b) Incrases

(d) None of these

117. The law of minimum was proposed by

(a) Woodbrey

(b) Odum Liebig

118. If frequency increases (a) Does not change

(b) Increases

(d) None of these

the energy

19. The main product of photochemical smog is

(b) O

PAN (c) H,SO,

120. The thickness of mantle is about

(d) NHẠC

2800 km (c) 1000 km

(b) 5000 km

(d) 10,000 km

121. In commensalism

(a) Two species are benefitted (b) species is benefitted and the other remains neutral

Both are harmed

(d) And depend on others

122. The imaginary line where the crust meets the mantle is known as

Monodiscontinuity (c) Conrad discontinuity

(b) Gutenberg discontinuity (d) None of these

123. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately (b) 3000ms

330 ms¹ (c) 10.000 ms

(d) 20ms

124. In hematotoxicity the targeted body part is Blood

125. Picture plant is an example of

(b) Liver

(d) Lungs

Epiphytes (c) Commensals

126. The primary rock in the earth's crust is

(b) Symbionts

(d) None of these

(a) Metamorphic rock

Igneous rock

(d) All the above

127. The main chemical responsible for hematotoxicity is

(b) CO₂ (d) SO₂

329

Appendices

329

128. The essential component of photosynthesis is (a) CO,

(b) H₂O

(d) All three

129. The unit of intensity of sound is (a) Wm2

(b) Nm 2

(d) bel

130. The abnormal growth and activities of a cell may cause (b) Typhoid

(a) Cancer (c) Cholera

131. The example of primary consumer is

(a) Plant

(e) Tiger

(d) Malaria

(b) Cow

(d) None of these 132. In pulmonotoxicity the targeted body part is

(a) Liver

Lungs

(b) Blood

(d) Kidney

133. Ozone absorbs (a) IR radiation

(b) UV radiation

(d) All the above

134. The most favourable zone for growth and development of an organism is

(t) Critical maximum zone (b) Critical minimum zone

Optimum zone

(d) None of these

135. The most suitable plume for disperesion of flue gas is

(a) Coning plume Lofting plume (d) Fumigating plume

(b) Fanning plume

136. The chemical responsible for cancer is

(a) Benzene

(b) Hydrazine All the above

137.

An eco-system consists of

(a) Living organism

(b) Non-living organism c) Both living and non-living organisms

(d) None of these

138. Heavy metals have specific gravity (a) Greater than four

(b) Less than four

(d) None of these

139. Inbuilt self-regulating mechanism is known as (a) Heterostatic mechanism

(b) Homostatic mechanism

(d) None of these

330

330

Environment and Ecology

140. An eco-system has Both structure and function

(b) Only structure (d) None of these

141. The coenzyme responsible for conversion of mercury to methyl mercury is

a) vitamin B (c) Vitamin D 12

(b) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin E 142. Plants uptake phosphorus in the form of

(b) Elemental P

(d) None of these

a) PO (c) HPO

143. In the reduction step of catalytic converter the catalyst used is (d) Platinum (b) Palladium

(d) Nickel

(b) Inverted

of these

(a) Upright (c) Can be upright and inverted (d) None

145. The exchange of mass and energy takes place in (a) Close system (c) Open system

(b) Isolated system

(d) None of these

146. The atmopshere is unstable under condition of

(ELR>ALR (c) ELR ALR

(b) ELR <ALR (d) None of these

147. Relative biological effectiveness of heavy nuclei is

(a) 1 (c) 10

(b) 2.5 (20

148. The example of autotrophic component may be (Green plants (c) Virus

(b) Bacteria

(d) None of these

149. Nitrogen fixation by nitrogen fixing bacteria is a

a) Endothermic process

(b) Exothermic process

(d) None of these 150.

The gross ecological efficiency is about

10%

151. Food web is

(b) 20%

(d) 80%

(a) Single food chain

(b) Disintegrated food chain

Interconnected food chain In the industrial area noise is measured by 152.

(a) L (18 hrs) index

(d) None of these

(b) L eq

(d) None of these

331

Appendices

153. The IR absorption band of methane is centered at

331

A) 3 pm and 8 jum (e) 20 pm and 40 µm

(b) 10 pm and 20 jim

ISI. Plants absorb sulphur in the form of

(d) 30 um and 50 um

(b) So,

155. Carbon dioxide absorbs (a) UV radiation

(d) All of these

(b) IR radiation

(d) None of the above 156. Energy flow in an eco-system is accompanied by (a) Energy gain

157. In carbonate hardness cations are

(4) Ca²

(b) Energy loss (d) Only (b) and (c)

(b) Mg2+

158. The fall of Roman Empire is related to an element (a) cadmium

(d) K

(b) lead

(d) arsenic

159. The planet venus has an albedo of

(a) 0.31

160. Ozone has strong absorption band at

(a) 50 µm

(b) 0.25

(d) None of these

(b) 20 µm

(b) Fumigant

162. Example of micronutrient is

(d) Modenticide

(a) N Mn

(b) Ca

(d) S

463. The surface temperature of Mars is (a) 750 K

218 K

(b) 288 K

(d) None of these

164. BOD bottle is stoppered to (a) remove 0,

(b) prevent further amount of O, to go in (c) allow growth of micro-organism

(d) None of these

332

332

Environment and Ecology

165. Phosphorus and sulphur cycle is example of

(a) Gaseous cycle

(b) Sedimentary cycle (d) None of these

(b) Very weak

(d) None of these 167. In BOD test seeded water is used for dilution in order to

() Very strong (c) Moderate

Have sufficient micro-organism (b) Make DO Concentration low (c) To kill micro-organism Anaerobic bacteria under anaerobic 168.

(d) None of these

condition convert NO, to

(a) NH,

(b) NO () N₂

(d) NO

169. Example of second trophic level organism is

Cattle

(d) Snake

(a) Plant (c) Lion

170. In the soil profile the top soil belongs to (a) A-Horizon

(b) R-Horizon

(O-Horizon

(b) Water (d) Wind

172. The maximum displacement of a particle about its mean position is

(a) Wavelength Amplitude

173. The planet Mars has an albedo of

(a) 0.76

0.25

(b) Frequency

(d) None of these

(b) 031

(d) None of these

174. Aircraft noise is measured by P

(b) L

(d) None of these

175. Nitrification means conversion of (a) Nitrogen to NO,

(b) NH to N₂

176. The BOD reaction gets completed in

NH to NO,

(a) 45 minutes

(b) 10 hours

(never gets completed

177. According to Charles Elton the number of links in food chain rarely exceeds

(a) Five (c) Two

(b) Six (d) Light

333

Appendices

178 The saturated value of DO is approximately

333

(a) 9 mg/l (c) 20 mg/l

(b) 5 mg/l

(d) 6 mg/l

179. The physical component of eco-system is

(a) Carbon 180. The temperature of magnetosphere is about

(a) 1200°C

0.03

(b) Oxygen

(d) None of these

(b) -100°C (d) 34°C

181. Volume percent composition of CO, in air is approximately

(b) 2.0 (d) 18

182 BOD test in the laboratory is done for

(a) Five days

(b) Two days.

(d) Ten days

Gaseous cycle (d) None of these

184 Photochemical smog is also known as

(a) Sulphurous smog (c) Chlorous smog

(b) Nitrogenous smog

(d) None of the above

185. The imaginary line where SiAl and SiMg layers meet is known as

(a) Gutenberg discontinuity (b) Mono discontinuity (d) None of these

e) Conrad discontinuity

186. The main water resource is

Oceana

(b) Glaciers

(b) Earthworm

(a) Amoeba (c) Fungi

(d) Both of these

(d) N₂

(b) CO₂

(d) River

188. The main component of magnetosphere is

(a) 1 atm (e) 90 atm

189. The atomospheric pressure of planet Mars is

(b) 5 atm

(d) 0.006 atm

190. (a) Sea

The maximum amount of salt is present in

(b) River

(d) Lake

334

Environment and Ecology

334

191. Hydrologic cycle is related to Water cycle (c) Sedimentary cycle

192 Plants use nitrogen in the form of

(b) Gescous cycle

(d) None of the above

(a) N, (c) NO

(b) NO (d) NH,

193. The BCF factor is maximum in

human being

(b) snake

(d) fox

194. The specific gravity of earth's core is about

(a) 30

(d) 33

(6) 13 (c) 23 195. The nature of pyramid of biomass is

(a) inverted

(upright

(b) Si

(d) Zn 197. Tertiary consumers are those which feed on

(a) Primary consumer

(b) Secondary consumer

(e) Both primary and secondary consumers (d) None of these

198. The atmosphere is stable under the condition of (a) ELR ALR

(b) ELR ALR

199. The IR absorption band of CO, is centred at

(d) None of these

ELR <ALR

(a) 20 μm (c) 25 μm

by 15 um (d) 10 um

200. Nitrogen fixation means conversion of (a) N, to NH,

N, to NO, (d) NO, to NH,

(b) Fumigant

201. Organomercury is an example of Fungicide

(d) Antibiotic

202. In non-carbonate hardness Ca2+ and Mg2+ are associated with 2

(a) C (c) PO

(b) SO (All the above

335

Appendices

335

203. In pharmaco kinetics the steps involved are (a) Absorption

(b) Storage

(c) Distribution (d) All the above 204. The outgoing energy radiated by earth corresponds to wavelength of about (a) 10 μm

(b) 3 um

(d) 30 um

(b) ML's (d) None of these

(a) Liver (c) Lungs 207. (d) None of these The temperature of the ionosphere varies from

(b) Kidney

(a) -2°C to -92°C (c) 92°C to 1200°C (d)-56°C 10-2°C

(b) 15°C to-56°C

208. In the oxidation step in catalytic converter the catalyst used is (a) Nickel (c) Palladium (b) Platinum

Iron

(b) 3,500 km

209. The thickness of core is about (a) 500 km

(d) 1,200 km

210. The segment of atmosphere whose gases are equally distributed is known

as Homosphere

(b) Heterosphere

(d) None of these

211. The atmospheric pressure on the planet venus is (a) 0.006 atm 90 atm (b) 1 atm (d) None of these

212. The expected rise in global temperature by the year 2030 is

(a) 10°C

(b) 8°C

(0) 3°C 213. The threshold limit values of impact noise of 120 dB is

(d) 15°C

(a) 100 (c) 10,000

(b) 1,000 (d) 100,000

214. The main component of mesosphere is

(4) NO

(b) H,

(d) CO₂

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Environment and Ecology

336

(b) 5% (d) 20%

215. Global warming leads sea water to (a) Increase of pH

(Decrease in pH

(d) None of the above

216. The maximum production efficiency at the primary producer level

is about

(a) 10%

217.

The noise can be measured through (b) Casette recorder

(a) Pen recorder

(All of these

218. Lakes poor in nutritive material are known as

(a) Mesotrophic (c) Eutrophic

(b) Oligotrophic (d) None of the above

219. The solar energy distributed per unit surface area of earth is

(a) 342 W/m2 (c) 6.84 W/m²

(b) 400 W/m² (d) 100 W/m²

220.

The antidote for MIC could be

(a) Sodium sulphate (c) Sodium chlorate

Sodium thiosulphate

(d) Sodium bromate

221.

The noise level which is painful to a human being is (b) 135 dB (A)

(a) 65 dB (A) (c) 80 dB (A)

(d) 20 dB (A)

222. The dry adiabatic lapse rate in the troposphere is about

(a)-9.8°C/km (c) -5.4°C/km

(b) -15°C/km (d) None of these

223. BOD test is done in dark to

(a) Prevent light to go inside

the bottle

(b) Prevent gases to diffuse

(d) None of these

224. The atmosphere window allows wavelength of radiation in the range of

A to 12 um c) 12-20 um

(b) 0 to 7 um

(d) 20-50 μm

225. In nephrotoxicity the targeted body part is

(b) Liver

(d) Blood 226. HCFC is less stable compare to CFC due to

(a) Hydrogen bond (c) Coordinate bond

(b) Electrovalent bond

(d) None of these

337

Appendices

227 The toxicity of Ca-45 is related to

337

(a) Bone (c) Blood

(b) Thyroid

(d) None of these 228. The main component of the troposphere is

(e) N (c) H

(b) 0,

(d) NO The heat energy reaches from sun to earth by 229.

(a) Conduction

(b) Convection

(d) None of these

(b) > 1500 mg/1

f) Trapping plume (d) Lofting plume

(d) None of the above 232. In measurement of sound pressure level (SPL) the reference pressure taken is (e) 2x 10 Nm 2

(b) 1x 10 Nm 2

(d) 5 x 10 Nm²

233. The particle size is maximum for

(a) Clay (b) Slit

234. The greenhouse effect is pronounced in venus due to presence

(a) H₂O (vapour) (c) N₂

(b) CO₂ (d) CH

235. Zinc phosphide is an example of

(a) Fumigant (e) Rodenticide (d) Antibiotic

(b) Fungicide

236. The saturated adiabatic lapse rate in the troposphere is about -5.4°C/km

(b) -10°C/km

237. The surface temperature of venus is

(d)-2.5°C/km

(a) 218 K (c) 288 K

238. In measurement of decibel (dB), the reference intensity taken is

(6) 750 K (d) None of these

(a) 1 x 10-12 W/m² (c) 5x 10-12 W/m2

(b) 2x 10-12 W/m² (d) None of these

239. Meningitis is caused by

(a) Bacteria

(Virus

(d) None of these

338

338

Environment and Ecology

240. The wavelength of incoming solar energy just outside the earth's

atmosphere is (a)-3 μm

(b) -10 μm

-100 μπι

(d)-5μm

241. The process of soil formation is due to

(a) Physical weathering

(b) Chemical weathering

(a) 15°C to -56°C

(b) -56°C to -2°C

(d)-92°C to 1200°C

(d) Mo. Co, Cu

(a) lonic reactions

Free medical mechanism (d) None of the above

245. The best method of solid waste disposal is

(a) Incineration

(b) Composting (d) All the above

(b) Sulphate

(d) Carbonate

(a) Ocean (c) Ponds

(b) Plants

(d) Lakes 248. The noise threshold limit values for 16 hours is

(a) 80 dB (A) (c) 90 dB (A)

(b) 100 dB (A)

249. The ozone hole in the antarctic is due to

(a) CFC

(d) 110 dB (A)

(b) CH

All the above

250. The most beautiful planet in the solar system is

(a) Earth

(b) Mars (d) Jupiter

251. Lakes rich in nutritive material are known as

(a) Mesotrophic

(e) Eutrophic

(b) Oligotrophic

(d) None of the above

339

Appendices

252. Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of (a) Cl

(b) SO

253. Properly treated water for drinking is (e) Potable water

(b) Sea water

254. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of (a) CI

(d) None of the above

2 (d) HCO,

255. The best method of radioactive waste disposal is

(a) Storing under water (b) Encapsulation

(a) Stratosphere

(d) None of these

(b) Troposphere (d) Magnetosphere

257. The main contributor of CO, in atmosphere is

(a) Oil

(b) Coal (d) None of these

258. The most unwanted MSW can be

(a) Metals Plastics

(b) Papers

The disinfection by chlorine is due to the formation of

259.

(a) Chlorine radical (c) Oxygen gas

260. An ideal example of brackish water source is

(Sea water

(d) Glasses

(b) Nascent oxygen (d) None of these

(b) Ground water (d) Spring water

1. Which of the following statements define Environmental Engineering?
a) Creation of procedures and infrastructure for water delivery
b) Waste disposal
c) Pollution control of various kinds
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Environmental engineering entails the creation of procedures and infrastructure for water delivery, waste disposal, and pollution control of various kinds.

2. Among the given engineers, who is known as the first female environmental engineer?
a) Ellen Swallow Richards
b) Miss Ellen Henrietta
c) Catherine Anselm Gleason
d) Elsie Eaves
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ellen H. Swallow Richards is best known for pioneering the subject of sanitary engineering. She was one of America’s first female professional chemists and the first woman to be accepted by a scientific institution.

3. Which of the following is/are types of pollution that affect the environment?
a) Air pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Land pollution
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Environmental contamination comes in three major forms: air pollution, water pollution, and land pollution. Excessive human activity, such as light and noise pollution, or specific pollutants, such as plastic or radioactive material, are all examples of pollution.

4. Which of the following statements define environmental chemistry?
a) study of chemical reactions that occur in water, air, land, biological habitats, and human activities
b) study of chemical reactions that occur in water, air, land, and biological habitats only
c) study of chemical reactions that occur in water, air, and land only
d) None of the above
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The study of chemical reactions that occur in water, air, land, and biological habitats, as well as the consequences of human activities on them, is known as environmental chemistry. Astrochemistry, atmospheric chemistry, environmental modeling, geochemistry, marine chemistry, and pollution remediation are among the topics covered.

5. Environmental science is defined by which of the following statements?
a) study of the interactions between the environment’s and humans only
b) study of the interactions between the environment’s and physical components
c) study of the interactions between the environment’s and chemical components
d) study of the interactions between the environment’s physical, chemical, and biological components
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Environmental science is the study of the interactions between the environment’s physical, chemical, and biological components.

6. Why carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas?
a) Because they absorb heat
b) Because they absorb moisture
c) Because they absorb oxygen
d) Because they absorb hydrogen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, ozone, nitrous oxide, and fluorinated gases are examples of greenhouse gases. Because they absorb heat, these molecules in our atmosphere are known as greenhouse gases.

7. Which of the following statements means water vapor?
a) Water vapor is the gaseous phase of water
b) Water vapor is the liquid phase of water
c) Water vapor is the solid phase of water
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Water vapor or aqueous vapor is the gaseous phase of water. It is one state of water within the hydrosphere. Water vapor can be produced from the evaporation or boiling of liquid water or from the sublimation of ice. Water vapor is transparent, like most constituents of the atmosphere.

8. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
a) Ocean currents
b) Solar energy
c) Biomass
d) All of the above
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Solar energy, wind, falling water, the earth’s heat (geothermal), plant materials (biomass), waves, ocean currents, temperature differences in the oceans, and the energy of the tides are all renewable resources.

9. Which is the first zone of purification in a sand bed?
a) Heterotrophic zone
b) Schmutzdecke zone
c) Electrolytic zone
d) Autotrophic zone
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Schmutzdecke zone is the first zone of purification in a sand bed. It comes under the biological action of filtration. Schmutzdecke is known as the surface coating.

10. What does the phrase “anthropogenic CO2 emissions” mean?
a) Natural CO2 emissions
b) Human made CO2 emissions
c) Industrial CO2 emissions
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The word “anthropogenic” stands for environmental impact due to human activity.

11. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, branches, trees, or other large particles suspended in water?
a) Primary sedimentation
b) Secondary sedimentation
c) Screening
d) Aeration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Screens are used as a pretreatment process for purification of water to avoid large size suspended materials from water.

12. Which of the following compounds was earlier produced for the utility of transformers?
a) PCB
b) TCDD
c) PCDF
d) PDD
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Polychlorinated biphenyls were used for transformer purposes, but now it is prohibited due to its adverse environmental impact.

13. When Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the following occurs?
a) Super adiabatic lapse rate
b) Neutral lapse rate
c) Adiabatic lapse rate
d) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Super adiabatic lapse rate, the environment is unstable due to the quick dispersion of pollutants.

14. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is less is than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the following occurs?
a) Super adiabatic lapse rate
b) Neutral lapse rate
c) Adiabatic lapse rate
d) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When the temperature increases with an increase in altitude, Sub adiabatic lapse rate occur and there will be stable environment.

15. Which of the following is NOT a primary pollutant?
a) Oxygen
b) Ground-level ozone
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone is not a primary pollutant since it is formed by the photo-chemical reaction of oxygen with the UV rays and not directly discharged into the atmosphere by a source.

16. Which of the following gas is released when alum is added to water?
a) Ca (OH)3
b) CO2
c) Al (OH)3
d) CaSO4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Carbon dioxide gas is released when alum is added to water, which is corrosive to metals.

17. Which of the following plants is extremely sensitive towards sulphur dioxide?
a) Tomato
b) Onion
c) Potato
d) Corn
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tomato is sensitive towards sulphur dioxide whereas onion, potato and corn are relatively tolerant.

18. Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water?
a) Garnet sand
b) Crushed rock
c) Sand
d) Anthracite
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Sand, Anthracite and Garnet sand are used as a filter material but crushed rock is not used in the treatment of water.

19. In which of the following process earthworms decompose biodegradable solid waste?
a) Composting
b) Land fills
c) Shredding
d) Vermi-composting
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is called Vermi-composting.

20. Which of the mentioned devices are used for removing vapour phase/gaseous pollutants?
a) Thermal oxidisers
b) Absorption towers
c) Catalytic converters
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Absorption tower, catalytic converters and thermal oxidisers filter out harmful gaseous pollutants from the air.

21. Which of the following is biodegradable waste?
a) Paper
b) Food waste
c) Polythene bags
d) Synthetic fiber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Polythene bags, synthetic fiber, and paper are non-biodegradable wastes whereas food waste is biodegradable waste.

22. Which of the following water treatment process is done after filtration of water?
a) Secondary sedimentation
b) Flocculation
c) Primary sedimentation
d) Disinfection
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Disinfection is a process which is done to kill microorganism present in the water after the filtration process.

23. Which of the following type of pollution is Cultural eutrophication?
a) Noise pollution
b) Thermal pollution
c) Soil pollution
d) Water pollution
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cultural eutrophication is a water pollution due to the presence of excessive nutrients from house waste, industries, etc. that pollutes the lake, decreases the oxygen level and destroys the aquatic ecosystem.

24. In the lower layers of atmosphere, what range of wavelengths of light is predominant?
a) Between 100-300 nm
b) Less than 100 nm
c) Greater than 300 nm
d) All wavelengths are equally present
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In the lower layers of atmosphere, light of wavelengths greater than 300nm are present and it is because of this reason, there is generally no ozone formation at the ground level.

25. Which of the following radiations of the sun do greenhouse gases trap?
a) Infrared radiations
b) UV radiations
c) Visible radiations
d) All the radiations
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Greenhouse gases trap the infrared radiations from the sun and reflect it back to the Earth’s surface thereby heating up the planet.

26. Which of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency?
a) Spray tower
b) Wet cyclonic scrubber
c) Dynamic precipitator
d) Electrostatic precipitator
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Electrostatic precipitator has the maximum efficiency among the rest with a value of 99%.

27. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?
a) SPM
b) PAN
c) O3
d) NO2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Photochemical smog includes NO2, O3 and PAN. The damage to vegetation is caused by NO2, O3 and PAN.

28. Which of the following device is used to prevent the clogging of sewer pipes?
a) Drop manhole
b) Storm regulators
c) Flushing tank
d) Lamp hole
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flushing tank is used to flush and clean the sewer to prevent it from clogging. This is done either by automatic flushing tank or by hand operated flushing tank.

29. Which of the following factor does not effect the dry weather flow?
a) Infiltration of ground water
b) Population growth
c) Rate of water supply
d) Temperature conditions
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are four factors that affect the dry weather flow, namely the rate of water supply, population growth, type of area served and infiltration of ground water.

30. Which of the following gas is not colorless?
a) SO3
b) Pb
c) NO
d) O3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: NO is a highly reactive gas which is reddish brown in color, whereas O3, Pb and SO3 are colorless gas.

31. Which of the following is an advantage of a separate water carriage system?
a) The more uniform character of sewage
b) Two sets of sewer are used
c) Get choked easily
d) Difficult to clean the sewer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The sewage in the separate water carriage system will be of more uniform character and it will lend itself more easily to purification.

32. Which of the following flow is also called sanitary sewage?
a) Nonuniform flow
b) Uniform flow
c) Dry weather flow
d) Storm weather flow
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dry weather flow is the quantity of wastewater that flows through a sewer in dry weather when no storm water is present in the sewer.

33. Which of the following greenhouse gas is contributed by cattle farming?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Methane
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Methane is a gas released by the digestive processes of cattle and hence cattle farming also contributes to the greenhouse effect.

1. At what concentration (in ppm), is nitrogen present in the atmosphere?
a) 780,840
b) 390,420
c) 78,084
d) 900,000
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen constitutes 78% of the atmosphere. So 78% of one million = 780,840 ppm – is the concentration of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.

2. In the lower layers of atmosphere, what range of wavelengths of light is predominant?
a) Less than 100 nm
b) Greater than 300 nm
c) Between 100-300 nm
d) All wavelengths are equally present
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the lower layers of atmosphere, light of wavelengths greater than 300nm are present and it is because of this reason, there is generally no ozone formation at the ground level.

3. What does the ratio of the mass of water vapour to mass of air indicate?
a) Absolute humidity
b) Specific humidity
c) Relative humidity
d) Approximate humidity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Specific humidity is the mass of water vapour per unit mass of air mixture.

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4. What is the region of mild and irregular wind in the equatorial region known as?
a) Trade winds
b) Westerlies
c) Doldrums
d) Easterlies
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Doldrums are the irregular winds and their exact location is hard to analyse. Ships in the region of doldrums might restrict its movement due to a lack of proper wind.

5. “Roaring forties” is the term used to describe which of the following winds?
a) East-to-west air winds in the southern hemisphere
b) West-to east air winds in the northern hemisphere
c) East-to-west air winds in the northern hemisphere
d) West-to-east air winds in the southern hemisphere
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Roaring forties found in the southern hemisphere are strong westerly winds caused by air displaced from the equator to the South Pole and aid yachtsmen in on competitions and voyages.

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6. Match the following.

A. Hurricane               1.Indian Ocean and South Pacific 
B. Typhoon                 2.Low level air circulation
C. Cyclone                 3.Northeastern Pacific and Atlantic
D. Tropical Cyclone        4.Northwestern Pacific

a) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
b) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
c) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
d) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hurricane, typhoon, cyclone are all used to categorise the same type of storm but differ based on their locations across the world. Tropical cyclone is a low level closed air circulation which is classified as a hurricane/typhoon/cyclone if wind speed exceeds 120km/hr.

7. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Troposphere is equally thick across different parts of the world
b) Troposphere contains the ozone layer
c) Troposphere is thinner at the equator than at the poles
d) Troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Troposphere is nearly 16-17km thick at the equator and thins down to approximately 8km at the poles.

8. The temperature decreases with altitude in the stratosphere layer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature slightly increases with altitude in the stratosphere due to absorption of UV radiations from the sun, by the ozone layer present in the stratosphere.

9. Which of the following indicates the correct order of the principal layers of the earth’s atmosphere from top to bottom?
a) Troposphere – Stratosphere – Mesosphere – Thermosphere – Exosphere
b) Thermosphere – Stratosphere – Troposphere – Mesosphere – Exosphere
c) Exosphere – Thermosphere – Mesosphere – Stratosphere – Troposphere
d) Exosphere – Mesosphere – Thermosphere – Stratosphere – Troposphere
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere followed by mesosphere, thermosphere, stratosphere and troposphere.

10. Which layer of the atmosphere is responsible for aurora formation?
a) Ozone layer
b) Stratosphere
c) Exosphere
d) Ionosphere
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ionosphere is a secondary layer of the atmosphere which extends through mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere during day time and is responsible for aurora – natural light display in the sky in high altitude region.

11. Which of the following mentioned layers is NOT a homosphere?
a) Exosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Ionosphere
d) Mesosphere
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Homospheric layers of atmosphere include layers where chemical composition is independent of molecular weight of gases due to mixing by turbulence. Hence the lower layers such as troposphere, ionosphere and mesosphere are homospheres.

12. Turbopause is highest layer of the homosphere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Turbopause marks the height at which homogenous layer, the homosphere ends. Below the turbopause, turbulent mixing of air dominates.

13. The planetary boundary layer belongs to which of the following atmospheric layers?
a) Exosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The planetary boundary layer is the lowermost level of the atmosphere and it belongs to the troposphere.

14. What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a) 101325 Pa
b) 14.696 psi
c) 760 Torr
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: As per International Standard Atmosphere, at sea level atmospheric pressure is equal to 101325 Pa which is equal to 14.696 psi and 760 Torr.

15. By international convention, which line marks the outermost boundary of the Earth’s atmosphere?
a) Space line
b) Boundary line
c) Karman line
d) Astronaut line
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Karman line lies at an altitude of 100km, between the atmospheric boundary of the Earth and outer space.

1. The GWP depends on which of the following factors?
a) Absorption capability of IR radiations
b) Atmospheric life-time
c) Range of IR wavelengths it can absorb
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The global warming potential of a given gas depends on its absorption capability over range of IR wavelengths and how long it stays in the atmosphere.

2. Which of the following mentioned GHGs has the highest atmospheric lifetime?
a) Carbon tetrafluoride
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Methane
d) CFC
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Among the mentioned gases, carbon tetrafluoride has the largest life time of 50,000 years and a GWP of approximately 5000 over a period of 20 years.

3. Which of the following gases has the highest radiative efficiency?
a) Sulphur hexafluoride
b) Carbon tetrachloride
c) PFTBA
d) CFC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Perfluorotributylamine used as in heat transfer and electrical industry has the highest radiative efficiency, i.e. it can effectively trap the long wave radiation better than other greenhouse gases.

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4. Which of the following compounds have the highest GWP?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) CFC
c) Water vapour
d) Sulphur hexafluoride
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sulphur hexafluoride has a potential of warming the planet 16,300 times greater than carbon dioxide.

5. Anthropogenic sources of carbon dioxide are 20 times greater than natural carbon dioxide sources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Natural sources of CO2 are twenty times greater than anthropogenic sources, but at the same time they are balanced out by various other natural processes.

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6. What is the reason for extreme difference in temperatures at day and night in deserts?
a) Carbon dioxide concentrations are low in desert regions, therefore heat escapes easily
b) Sand has high heat conduction properties
c) Lack of moisture leads to escape of heat
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lack of moisture, i.e. water vapour, prevents re-radiation of the IR rays from the surface, thereby not trapping heat. Hence desert has high temperatures during the day and extremely low temperatures in the night.

7. What does the method of “enhanced weathering” infer?
a) It is a method used to spray sulphate aerosols to reduce the greenhouse effect
b) It is a method of cloud seeding that is done to reduce the contribution of clouds to greenhouse effect
c) It is a method used to remove CO2from the air
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced weathering is a form of geo-engineering where minerals are broken down to help remove CO2 from air.

8. What does the process of carbon sequestration mean?
a) Removal of CO2 from the atmosphere
b) Storage of CO2 by depositing in reservoir
c) Removal of CO2 from the atmosphere & Storage of CO2 by depositing in reservoir
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon sequestration is the process of removal of CO2 and storing them in carbon sinks to minimise their impact on global warming.

9. Which of the following is a sink for carbon?
a) Wetlands
b) Old oil fields
c) Saline waterbodies
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Wetlands, old oil fields, saline waterbodies, etc. are important carbon storages and help in removal of CO2 from atmosphere.

10. Which of the following greenhouse gas is contributed by cattle farming?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Methane
c) Carbon monoxide
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Methane is a gas released by the digestive processes of cattle and hence cattle farming also contribute to greenhouse effect.

11. Volcanic eruptions contribute to the global greenhouse phenomenon.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Volcanic eruptions release sulphate aerosols which help in blocking sun’s radiations from reaching the Earth’s surface. Hence they aid in generating a cooling effect.

1. What is the average concentration of ozone in the ozone layer of the atmosphere?
a) Nearly 100%
b) Greater than 90%
c) Between 10-50%
d) Less than 10ppm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The concentration of ozone is about 10 ppm in the ozone layer and only 0.3 ppm in the entire atmosphere.

2. Who discovered the ozone layer?
a) Henri Buisson & Charles Fabry
b) Carl Sagan & Charles Fabry
c) G.M.B Dobson
d) Carl Sagan &G.M.B Dobson
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In 1913, Henri Buisson and Charles Fabry discovered the ozone layer and later its properties were studied by G.M.B. Dobson.

3. Which of the following devices can be used to measure ozone in the stratosphere from the ground?
a) Spectrometer
b) Photometer
c) Spectrophotometer
d) Spectro-ozonometer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The spectrophotometer developed by Dobson can be used to measure ozone in the stratosphere from the ground. The amount of ozone is measured in terms of – Dobson unit.

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4. The ozone layer absorbs what range of wavelengths of the sun’s radiation?
a) 0.80 nm – 1.50 nm
b) 200 nm – 315 nm
c) 450 nm – 570 nm
d) 600 nm – 750 nm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs the medium frequency UV radiations from the sun and hence protects the life forms at the surface from harm.

5. Who discovered the formation of ozone from photochemical reactions?
a) G.M.B Dobson
b) Sydney Chapman
c) Carl Sagan
d) Henri Buisson
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sydney Chapman was the physicist who discovered that stratospheric ozone if formed when the UV rays from the sun splits oxygen molecules, and the nascent oxygen combines with existing molecules to form ozone.

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6. Between what altitudes, is the ozone layer found in highest concentrations?
a) 10-20km
b) 20-40km
c) 40-55km
d) 55-70km
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ozone layer is found in high concentrations of 2-8ppm at an altitude of 20-40km.

7. Nitrogen also helps in preventing UV rays from reaching the Earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen prevents extremely short wavelengths or vacuum UV radiations (10-100nm) from reaching the surface.

8. Which of the following UV radiations is responsible for causing sun burns and skin cancer?
a) UV-A
b) UV-B
c) UV-C
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: UV-B radiations of 315-280nm is responsible for causing sunburns, genetic damage as well as skin cancer.

9. The long UV-B radiations are important for vitamin D production of the skin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The longest of the UV-B radiations reach the surface of the earth is small fractions and aids in vitamin D production of the skin.

10. In which season is the ozone found at its maximum level in the northern hemisphere?
a) Winter
b) Summer
c) Spring
d) Autumn
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The ozone levels in the northern hemisphere are at maximum during the spring season.

11. When was the ozone hole discovered?
a) 1974
b) 1964
c) 1994
d) 1984
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The ozone hole was discovered in the year 1984 by Jonathan Franklin, Joseph Farman and Brian Gardiner.

12. The ozone hole is a phenomenon that has occurred in:
a) Arctic region
b) Northern temperate region
c) Southern temperate region
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The phenomenon of the ozone hole occurred in the Antarctic region primarily due to catalytic breakdown of ozone molecules by halogenated compounds.

13. Which of the following chemicals are responsible for the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer?
a) Refrigerants
b) Propellants
c) Foam-blowing agents
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Refrigerants containing halocarbons, foam-blowing agents such as HFCs, halons, CFCs and freons as well as propellants containing halogenated compounds are responsible for depleting the ozone layer.

14. What does EESC stand for in context of ozone depleting compounds?
a) Equivalent Effective Stratospheric Chlorine
b) Equivalent Effective Stratospheric Chlorofluorocarbons
c) Equivalent Energy Saving Compounds
d) Energy Effective Stratospheric Compounds
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: EESC stands for equivalent effective stratospheric chlorine is used to measure the chlorine equivalent of halogens that can deplete the ozone layer.

15. The Montreal Protocol bans the production of which of the following chemical substances?
a) Chlorine, bromine, CFCs, freons
b) Carbon tetrachloride, halons, trichloroethane, CFCs
c) CFCs, bromine, halons, freons
d) CFCs, halons, freons
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Montreal protocol bans the production of halons, trichloroethane, CFCs and carbon tetrachloride.

1. What would have been the average temperature of Earth without greenhouse gases?
a) 0oC
b) -7oC
c) -9oC
d) -19oC
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Without greenhouse gases, the Earth’s average temperature (currently about 14oC), would have been 33oC less.

2. Ever since the industrial revolution, by how much has the average temperature of the Earth increased?
a) 0.24oC
b) 0.6oC
c) 1.2oC
d) 1.8oC
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since the industrial revolution, the average temperature of earth has increased by 0.6oC due to consumption of fossil fuels.

3. How much of the sun’s radiation energy is absorbed by the greenhouse gases to warm the planet?
a) 75PW
b) 1750GW
c) 1500MW
d) 150TW
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The greenhouses gases, mainly carbon dioxide and water vapour absorb nearly 75 peta-watts of the infrared radiations from the sun.

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4. What is the emissivity of the Earth’s surface?
a) 0.457
b) 0.578
c) 0.135
d) 1.42
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Earth has an emissivity of 0.457.

5. The Earth is still said to be in the “ice age” period.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As per definition, ice age refers to the period when there are large ice sheets in both the hemispheres. Antarctica, Greenland and Arctic ice sheets are the reason we are still in Holocene of the ice age.

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6. In which layer of the ionosphere does the International Space Station orbit?
a) D
b) E
c) F
d) G
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The F-layer of the ionosphere has enough atmospheric resistance for the orbiting of International Space station and space shuttle.

7. Which type of clouds is found in the highest altitude of the Earth’s atmosphere?
a) Noctilucent
b) Cirrostratus
c) Stratus
d) Cirrus
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The noctilucent clouds or night clouds are found in the mesosphere at an altitude of approximately 80km.

8. What is the significance of the ionosphere?
a) Aviation movements
b) High frequency radio transmission
c) Regulates weather
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ionosphere contains ionized atmospheric particles due to solar radiation and is useful in the propagation of radio waves.

9. Troposphere contains nearly 80% of the atmosphere by mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tropospheric layer extends up to 17km in altitude at the equator and is known to contain 80% of the mass of the atmosphere.

10. What does the term “overcast” define?
a) Phenomenon of indirect radiation exposure due to scattering
b) Weather when cloud cover is equal to 8 oktas
c) Phenomenon of indirect radiation exposure due to scattering & Weather when cloud cover is equal to 8 oktas
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Overcast is a phenomenon where cloud cover is equal to 8 oktas (unit of measurement) and shadow cannot be seen due to indirect radiation caused by scattering.

11. Twinkling of stars is otherwise known as scintillation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Scintillation or twinkling is the effect of apparent position or brightness of a distant light emitting body (like stars), observed through various layers of the atmosphere.

12. What does ITCZ stand for corresponding to global wind patterns?
a) Inner Tropospheric Convergence Zone
b) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
c) Inner Tropical Continental Zone
d) Inter Tropical Continental Zone
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is the region around the equator where southeast and northeast trade winds meet.

1. At what concentration (in ppm), is nitrogen present in the atmosphere?
a) 780,840
b) 390,420
c) 78,084
d) 900,000
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen constitutes 78% of the atmosphere. So 78% of one million = 780,840 ppm – is the concentration of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.

3. What does the ratio of the mass of water vapour to mass of air indicate?
a) Absolute humidity
b) Specific humidity
c) Relative humidity
d) Approximate humidity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Specific humidity is the mass of water vapour per unit mass of air mixture.

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4. What is the region of mild and irregular wind in the equatorial region known as?
a) Trade winds
b) Westerlies
c) Doldrums
d) Easterlies
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Doldrums are the irregular winds and their exact location is hard to analyse. Ships in the region of doldrums might restrict its movement due to a lack of proper wind.

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6. Match the following.

A. Hurricane               1.Indian Ocean and South Pacific 
B. Typhoon                 2.Low level air circulation
C. Cyclone                 3.Northeastern Pacific and Atlantic
D. Tropical Cyclone        4.Northwestern Pacific